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Xeneth
PostPosted: Mon Mar 12, 2012 1:47 pm 
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In IPv4, the first ip must be left out to be the network ID. Is the same true for IPv6?

For example, an an individual host be assigned the ip 2000:0:0:0:0:0:0:0? Some will ask what subnet, but just like IPv4 10.0.0.0, it's going to be the first no mater the slash notation.

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Reggle
PostPosted: Tue Mar 13, 2012 3:21 am 
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I believe according to the standards, you can use the first address in IPv6. A Cisco router allows configuration of it. I've met some applications making a problem out of it though.

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mellowd
PostPosted: Tue Mar 13, 2012 5:35 am 
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Not sure, but it's not like we are short of addresses so why even bother?

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Xeneth
PostPosted: Sat Mar 17, 2012 6:29 am 
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True we are not in danger of running out, I just want to understand the addressing scheme. Better understanding. IPv6 is something I'm wanting to get into, so just looking around. I am going for CCNA in a couple of weeks, and this caught my eye.

Additional Question:
With the MAC to EUI-64 conversion, the second bit in the left byte is changed. All examples show "0000 0000 to 0000 0010", but is that added or flipped? so would "0000 0010" become "0000 0000" or "0000 0100"?

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Xeneth
PostPosted: Sat Mar 17, 2012 6:46 am 
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Going by http://www.silmor.de/ipaddrcalc.html, it's just flipped. If I can get a confirmation? It's not a known site.

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Reggle
PostPosted: Sun Mar 18, 2012 6:12 am 
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It's flipped, other bits are not affected.

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Xeneth
PostPosted: Mon Mar 19, 2012 1:52 pm 
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Thanks I'm going to study IPv6 on my own for a bit after getting CCNA, and this will make understanding easier.

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The Beard
PostPosted: Tue Mar 20, 2012 9:01 am 
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the flip is just for global links right?
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Xeneth
PostPosted: Fri Mar 30, 2012 6:30 am 
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From what I understand, it flips every time the MAC is used with EUI-64 conversion for IPV6.

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